Wireman – Semester 3 Module 1 – Electronic Components

1 : What is the name of maximum reverse voltage the diode can with stand?
A : Knee voltage
B : Barrier voltage
C : Peak inverse voltage
D : Cut in voltage

2 : What is the barrier potential for silicon diode?
A : 0.9V
B : 0.3V
C : 0.7V
D : 0.6V

3 : Identify the component symbol represents?

A : Diode
B : Diac
C : LED
D : Zener diode

4 : What is the application of zener diode?
A : Voltage regulator
B : Rectifier
C : Amplification
D : Oscillation

5 : How many terminals are in transistor?
A : 2
B : 3
C : 4
D : 5

6 : Which is the current amplification factor in common base configuration?
A : Alpha (α)
B : Beta (ꞵ)
C : Gamma (ɤ)
D : Delta (∆)

7 : Which region emitter and collector junctions are reverse biased?
A : Safuration region
B : Cut off region
C : Active region
D : Breakdown region

8 : How many semi conducting layers are present in SCR?
A : Two
B : Three
C : Four
D : Five

9 : What are the name of the terminals in UJT?
A : Base 1, Base 2, gate
B : Anode, Cathode, gate
C : Base 1, Base 2, Emitter
D : Emitter base, collector

10 : Which current is required to turn ON SCR from OFF state to ON state?
A : Holding current
B : Latching current
C : Reverse blocking current
D : Forward blocking current

11 : Which is the control terminal of SCR?
A : Gate
B : Cathode
C : Anode
D : Base

12 : How many terminals are in fixed voltage regulator IC?
A : 3
B : 4
C : 5
D : 6

13 : How the size of integrated circuits (IC) compared with discrete circuit?
A : Large
B : Small
C : Similar
D : Very large

14 : What does 05 indicates in IC 7805?
A : Positive output current
B : -5V
C : +5V
D : Negative output current

Wireman – Semester 3 Module 1 – Electronic Components

15 : What is the application of 7805 IC?
A : Clipping
B : Clamping
C : Oscillator
D : Voltage regulator

16 : What is the name of component marked as X in voltage regulator?

A : Zener diode
B : Diode
C : Transistor
D : Diac

17 : Which is the high power passive component in D.C. power supply?
A : Transistors
B : Diodes
C : IC
D : Resistors

18 : Which is the second stage of a DC power supply?
A : Voltage transformation
B : Filtering
C : Rectification
D : Input supply

Wireman – Semester 3 Module 2 – Electrical Appliances

19 : Which material is used for heating coil of electric heater?
A : Copper
B : Nichrome
C : Silver
D : Brass

20 : What is the part marked as X?

A : Bowl reflector
B : Heating element
C : Insulator
D : Switch

21 : How many number of pins are in the chord wire of automatic electric iron?
A : 1
B : 2
C : 3
D : 4

22 : Which is the additional part used in automatic iron compared to non automatic iron?
A : Heal plate
B : Pressure plate
C : Chord wire
D : Thermostat

23 : What is the function of thermostat in automatic electric iron?
A : To control the temperature
B : To transfer heat
C : To fix the element
D : To hold electric iron

24 : What is the range of speed in a food mixer?
A : 300-600rpm
B : 550-900rpm
C : 1000-2000rpm
D : 3000-14000rpm

25 : What is the minimum value of insulation resistance of chord wire in a food mixer?
A : 1 mega ohm
B : 500 ohm
C : 100 mega ohm
D : 1 ohm

26 : What is the function of rotary switch in food mixer?
A : Over load protection
B : To reverse rotation
C : Over current Protection
D : Speed selection

27 : How many windings are in a ceiling fan?
A : 4
B : 3
C : 2
D : 1

28 : Which type of bearing is used in table fan?
A : Sleeve bearings
B : Ball bearings
C : Roller bearings
D : Needle bearings

29 : Which type of motor is used in ceiling fan?
A : Permanent capacitor motor
B : Capacitor start induction run motor
C : Universal motor
D : Repulsion motor

30 : Which washing machine, water is propelled up wards?
A : Agitator wash
B : Pulsator wash
C : Air power wash
D : Chaos punch wash

31 : Which type of washing machine is fitted with concave shaped disc?
A : Air wash
B : Agitator wash
C : Pulsator wash
D : Chaos punch wash

32 : Which electrical effect gang type electric bell works?
A : Heating effect
B : Magnetic effect
C : Chemical effect
D : X ray effect

33 : Which device is used in annunciator panel?
A : Buzzer
B : LED
C : Hooter
D : Loud speaker

Wireman – Semester 3 Module 3 – DC Generator

34 : What is the working principle of DC generator?
A : Amperes law
B : Faradays law of electro magnetic induction
C : Faradays law of electrolysis
D : Lenzs law

35 : What type of Emf is induced in DC generator?
A : Dynamically induced
B : Statically induced
C : Self induced
D : Mutually induced

36 : What rule is used to find the direction of induced emf in DC generator?
A : End rule
B : Flemings right hand rule
C : Cork screw rule
D : Flemings left hand rule

37 : Which generator the field winding is connected across the armature?
A : Series generator
B : Pulse generator
C : Magneto generator
D : Shunt generator

38 : Which type of DC generator can be called as a constant voltage generator?
A : Series generator
B : Shunt generator
C : Differential compound generator
D : Under compound generator

39 : Which part of a DC generator is laminated?
A : Winding
B : Shaft
C : Armature core
D : Yoke

40 : Which material is used for commutator segment?
A : Copper
B : Hard-drawn copper
C : Carbon
D : Brass

41 : Identify the part marked as X in figure?

A : Teeth
B : Slot
C : Key way
D : Air duct

42 : What is the function of commutator in DCgenerator?
A : To convert AC to DC
B : To convert DC to AC
C : To rotate the armature
D : To collect current

43 : Where the brushes are housed in DC generator?
A : Yoke
B : Terminal box
C : Shaft
D : Brush holder

44 : Which part of the DC generator helps tospread out field flux in the air gap?
A : Pole shoes
B : Yoke
C : Armature
D : Commutator

45 : What is indicated by letter N in this formula?

A : Number of conductor
B : Speed in rpm
C : Number of parallel path
D : Number of poles

46 : Which is the formula of emf equation in wave wound DC generator?

47 : What will happen, if shunt field resistance is too large?
A : Fails to build up voltage
B : Build up voltage
C : Generator doesnt run
D : Voltage increases

48 : Which determines the polarity of induced emf in DC shunt generator?
A : Number of conductor
B : Number of parallel path
C : Direction of rotation of armature
D : Number of field poles

49 : Which type of DC generator is used as booster generator?
A : Series generator
B : Separately exited generator
C : Shunt generator
D : Compound generator

50 : Which type of compound generator is illustrated?

A : Short shunt compound generator
B : Long shunt compound generator
C : Differential compound generator
D : Separately excited generator

51 : Which generator has both shunt and series field winding?
A : Compound generator
B : Shunt generator
C : Series generator
D : Separately excited generator

52 : What is the name of DC generator?

A : Short shunt compound generator
B : Long shunt compound generator
C : Differential compound generator
D : Shunt generator

53 : Which generator, shunt field flux is opposed by series field flux?
A : Differential compound generator
B : Cumulative compound generator
C : Shunt generator
D : Series generator

54 : Which DC compound generator the shunt field is connected in parallel to armature only?
A : Shunt generator
B : Short shunt generator
C : Series generator
D : Long shunt generator

55 : What is the function of series field winding in cumulative compound generator?
A : To oppose the shunt field
B : To oppose main field
C : To assist the shunt field
D : To oppose armature

56 : What is the full form of TPT?
A : Trailing Pole Tip
B : Temporary Pole Tip
C : Topmost Pole Tip
D : Temporary Present Tip

57 : What is the full form of GNA?
A : General Neutral Axis
B : Geometrical Neutral Axis
C : Geographical Neutral Axis
D : Geometrical Numerical Axis

58 : How the effect of cross magerising effect is nullified?
A : By changing commutator
B : By reversing direction
C : By shifting the brush position
D : By changing armature

59 : What is the function of compensating winding in DC machine?
A : Reduce armature reaction
B : To produce flux
C : To reduce humming
D : To reduce friction

60 : What is the function of interpole in DC machine?
A : To reduce humming
B : To improve commutation
C : To reduce magnetic locking
D : To reduce vibration

61 : What is the name of part marked as X?

A : Main pole
B : Interpole
C : Compensating winding
D : Pole shoe

62 : What is the full form of MNA?
A : Micro Neutral Axis
B : Minimum Neutral Axis
C : Miniature Neutral Axis
D : Magnetic Neutral Axis

63 : How the compensating winding is connected with the armature of DC machine?
A : Series
B : Parallel
C : Series – Parallel
D : Between armature and field

64 : How the inter poles are connected to the armature of a DC machine
A : Parallel
B : Series
C : Series – Parallel
D : Between armature and field

65 : What is the effect of rough commutation in DC generators?
A : Heavy sparking in the brushes
B : Terminal voltage reduces to zero
C : Voltage drop at brushes increases
D : Terminal voltage reduces considerably

66 : Which generator has very high value of voltage regulation?
A : Shunt generator
B : Compound generator
C : Series generator
D : Magneto generator

67 : Which of the following is the voltage equation for DC series generator?

68 : Which type of DC generator is used for welding purpose?
A : Differential compound generator
B : Cumulative compound generator
C : Shunt generator
D : Series generator

69 : Which type of DC generator is used for centrifugal pump?
A : Series generator
B : Shunt generator
C : Differential compound generator
D : Under compound generator

70 : Which type of DC compound generator is used for light and power load?
A : Flat compound
B : Under compound
C : Differential compound
D : Differential long shunt generator

71 : Which of the following generator does not build up voltage if load is not connected?
A : Series generator
B : Shunt generator
C : Long shunt compound generator
D : Short shunt compound generator

72 : What is the condition of voltage while operating DC generators in parallel?
A : Must be more
B : Above 250V
C : Must be the same
D : Must be less

73 : Where the positive terminal of the generator is connected while parallel operation?
A : -ve bus bar
B : Neutral point
C : +ve bus bar
D : Phase wire

74 : How load is shifted from one generator to other when DC generators are operating in parallel?
A : Adjusting speed
B : Adjusting armature resistance
C : By stopping the generator
D : Adjusting excitation

75 : Which of the following is the necessity of parallel operation of DC generators?
A : Continuity of supply
B : Reduce cost
C : Easy operation
D : Easy connection

76 : What is the cause for the fault, that brush makes chattering noise?
A : Over loading
B : Insufficient brush tension
C : Excessive brush pressure
D : Insufficient brush spring pressure

77 : What is the cause for the fault that bearing over heating in DC generator?
A : Unbalanced armature
B : Foreign material in air gap
C : More current in armature
D : Incorrect grade of bearing grease

78 : What is the cause for the fault that heavy sparking in light loads in DC generator?
A : Oily commutator surface
B : Defective alignment
C : Defective bearing
D : Wrong alignment

79 : Which machine converts electrical power to mechanical power?
A : Alternator
B : DC motor
C : DC generator
D : Transformer

80 : Which rule is used to find out direction of rotation of DC motor?
A : Flemings left hand rule
B : Flemings right hand rule
C : Cork screw rule
D : End rule

81 : Which type of magnetic field is necessary for working of DC motor?
A : Pulsating magnetic field
B : Alternating magnetic field
C : Rotating magnetic field
D : Uniform magnetic field

82 : What is the value of angle between fingers in Flemings left hand rule?
A : Right angles to each other
B : 40 degrees to each other
C : 45 degrees to each other
D : 60 degrees to each other

83 : Which formula is used to find out back emf in DC motor?

84 : What is the unit of torque in DC motor?
A : Joule
B : Newton
C : Newton – metre
D : Watt

85 : Which represent the turning or twisting moment of force in an axis?
A : Centrifugal force
B : Speed
C : Twisting
D : Torque

86 : Which motor has very high starting torque?
A : DC series motor
B : DC shunt motor
C : DC differential compound motor
D : DC cumulative compound motor

87 : What is the name of DC motor?

A : Short shunt compound motor
B : DC Series motor
C : DC Shunt motor
D : Long shunt compound motor

88 : What are the field winding terminals of a DC shunt motor?
A : E1 and E2
B : A1 and A2
C : D1 and D2
D : F1 and F2

89 : Which type of motor considered as constant speed motor?
A : DC shunt motor
B : DC series motor
C : AC series motor
D : Universal motor

Wireman – Semester 3 Module 4 – DC Motors

90 : How shunt field is connected to armature in DC shunt motor?
A : Series
B : Parallel
C : Series parallel
D : Combination

91 : Which is torque expression of DC series
motor?

92 : What is the name of part marked as X?

A : Series field
B : Shunt field
C : Armature
D : Compensating winding

93 : Which motor is to be started with load?
A : 3 Phase induction motor
B : Slip ring induction motor
C : DC series motor
D : DC shunt motor

94 : Where the series motor is used?
A : Lathe
B : Hoist
C : Pumpset
D : Welding

95 : Which motor is used in heavy construction trucks?
A : Differential compound motor
B : Cumulative
compound motor
C : DC shunt motor
D : DC series motor

96 : Which motor has both shunt field and series field winding?
A : Compound motor
B : Shunt motor
C : Series motor
D : Capacitor motor

97 : Which motor is used in steel rolling machinery?
A : DC Differential compound
B : DC cumulative compound motor
C : DC series motor
D : DC shunt motor

98 : Which protect DC motor from over load?
A : Commutator
B : Field diverter
C : Armature diverter
D : Starter

99 : How starting current is reduced in DC motors?
A : By using armature diverter
B : By using field diverter
C : By using starters
D : By controlling speed

100 : Which part of DC motor starter hold the handle in ON position?
A : OLR
B : No volt coil
C : Protective resistor
D : Spiral spring

101 : How the starting resistance is connected with armature of DC motor?
A : Parallel with armature
B : Series with armature
C : Series with field
D : Across with field

102 : Which starter is used for starting a DC compound motor?
A : Two point starter
B : DOL starter
C : Four point starter
D : Star-Delta starter

103 : What is the function of protective resistor in DC four point starter
A : To limit current in holding coil
B : To limit armature current
C : To limit field current
D : To limit the speed

104 : Which type of starter is used for DC series motor
A : DOL starter
B : Four point starter
C : Two point starter
D : Three point starter

105 : Which relation gives the speed of a DC motor?

106 : Which method of speed control of DC motor?

A : Supply voltage control
B : Field tapping
C : Field diverter
D : Armature diverter

107 : What is the part marked as X?

A : Diverter
B : Field coil
C : Starting resistor
D : Armature

108 : Which method of speed control used in DC shunt motor to control the speed below normal?
A : Field control
B : Armature control
C : Field tapping method
D : Field diverter method

109 : Which method of speed control used in DC motor to control the speed above normal
A : Field control
B : Armature control
C : Supply voltage control
D : Tapped field control

110 : Which method of speed control used for variation of speed from zero to above normal?
A : Supply voltage
B : Armature control
C : Shunt field control
D : Ward-Leanard system

111 : Which motor has this speed – torque characteristic?

A : DC series motor
B : DC shunt motor
C : Cumulative compound motor
D : Differential compound motor

112 : Which motor is used for traction purpose?
A : DC shunt motor
B : DC compound motor
C : DC series motor
D : Capacitor motor

113 : Which motor is used for grinders and polishers?
A : DC series motor
B : DC shunt motor
C : Differential compound motor
D : Cumulative compound motor

114 : Which instrument is used to measure insulation resistance of DC motor?
A : Earth tester
B : Megger
C : Voltmeter
D : Ammeter

115 : Which is the major reason for open circuit in armature circuit of DC machine?
A : Over voltage
B : Low voltage
C : Over load
D : Loose commulator segments

116 : Which test is conducted to determine the winding earth leakage of a DC motor?
A : Continuity test
B : Ground test
C : Short circuit test
D : Open circuit test

Wireman – Semester 3 Module 5 – Three phase circuit

117 : What is the angular displacement of 3 phase voltages?
A : 120 electrical degrees
B : 90 electrical degrees
C : 180 electrical degrees
D : 360 electrical degrees

118 : What is the factor relating to line voltage and phase voltage?
A : √3
B : √2
C : 1
D : 3

119 : What is the formula for power in delta connection

120 : What is the value of neutral current in balanced star connected 3 phase load?

121 : What is the relation between line voltage (VL) and phase voltage (Vph) in 3 phase delta connection?

122 : What is the line voltage if phase voltage is 415V in delta connection?
A : 415V
B : 400
C : 240V
D : 138V

123 : Which is the type of load when the phase currents of a 3 phase circuit are same?
A : Balanced load
B : Unbalanced load
C : No load
D : Full load

124 : Which is the type of load if the phase currents of a 3 phase system are different?
A : Full load
B : No load
C : Balanced load
D : Unbalanced load

125 : How many number of watt meter to be used for balanced 3 phase power measurement?
A : One
B : Two
C : Three
D : Four

126 : Which method is used for 3f power measurement when load is unbalanced?
A : One watt meter method
B : Voltmeter method
C : Ammeter method
D : Three watt meter method

127 : What is the value of power factor when two watt meter readings are equal in 2 watt meter method of power measurement?
A : Unity
B : 0.5 lagging
C : 0.5 leading
D : Less than 0.5

128 : What is the reading in second watt meter W2 if the first watt meter reading is W1 = 100W at the p.f 0.5?
A : 200W
B : Zero
C : 100W
D : 50W

129 : What is the formula for total power in three watt meter method of power measurement?
A : W1 – W2
B : W1+W2+W3
C : W1+W2
D : W1(W2+W3)

130 : Where two watt meter method of power measurement is used?
A : Balanced load only
B : Unbalanced load only
C : Balanced and unbalanced load
D : Half full load

131 : What is the value of line current if phase current is 10 Amp in star connection?
A : 17.3 Amp
B : 10 Amp
C : 5 Amp
D : 9 Amp

132 : Calculate the phase current if the line current is 30 Amp in delta connection?
A : 30A
B : 17.3A
C : 15.6A
D : 10Amp

133 : Which working principle AC generator?
A : Faradays laws of electro magnetic induction
B : Ohms law
C : Lenzs law
D : Faradays laws of electrolysis

134 : Which Emf is induced in a AC generator?
A : Dynamically induced emf
B : Statically induced emf
C : Counter emf
D : Self induced emf

135 : Which part rotates in large alternator?
A : Field
B : Armature
C : Brush
D : Yoke

136 : Which material is used to construct armature core of alternator?
A : Spring steel
B : Mild steel
C : Silicon steel
D : Forged steel

137 : Which rotor is used in high speed alternator?
A : Smooth cylindrical
B : Salient pole
C : Projected pole
D : Squirrel cage rotor

138 : Which type of slots are used in armature core of alternator?
A : Totally closed
B : Wide open
C : Semi closed
D : Semi open

139 : What are the terminal markings of a 3 phase star connected alternator?
A : U, V, W and N
B : A, B, C and N
C : 1, 2, 3 and 4
D : X, Y, Z, N

140 : What is the phase displacement between three windings in an alternator?
A : 120°
B : 90°
C : 360°
D : 180°

141 : Which type of rotor has small diameter and large axial length?
A : Smooth cylindrical
B : Salient pole
C : Projecting pole
D : Squirrel cage

142 : What is the excitation source of a large alternator?
A : DC shunt generator
B : Rectifier
C : DC series generator
D : Battery

143 : Which type of alternator is used for high speed operation?
A : Salient pole alternator
B : Smooth cylindrical pure alternator
C : Projected pole alternator
D : Impulse turbo alternator

144 : How the alternators are rated?
A : KVA
B : KW
C : KVAR
D : KWH

145 : What is the Emf equation of an ideal alternator?

Wireman – Semester 3 Module 6 – AC Generator
146 : What is the formula for calculating total load on 3-phase alternator?

147 : What is the formula for voltage regulation of an alternator?

148 : What is the condition for voltage in parallel operation of 3-phase alternator?
A : Must be same
B : Must be different
C : Must be low
D : Must be high

149 : Which is the condition for parallel operation of 3-phase alternator?
A : Frequency must be same
B : Voltage must be different
C : Sequence must be different
D : Polarity must be different

150 : Why parallel operation of alternators is necessary?
A : To get more voltage
B : To share more loads
C : To improve efficiency
D : To maintain constant frequency

151 : Which method of synchronising is given?

A : Dark lamp method
B : Bright lamp method
C : Synchroscope method
D : Two bright one dark method

152 : What method is used for parallel operation of alternator?
A : Dark and bright lamp method
B : Ward – leonald method
C : Over excitation method
D : Under excitation method

153 : Which is the correct time of parallel operation of alternators in lamp method illustrated?

A : All 3 lamps in dark
B : All 3 lamps in bright
C : Two lamps bright and one lamp dark
D : One lamp bright and two lamps dark

154 : How the 3 lamps glow under parallel operation of alternators in bright lamp method?
A : All 3 lamps in dark
B : All 3 lamps in bright
C : Two lamps bright and one lamp dark
D : One lamp bright and two lamps dark

155 : How many lamps are required for parallel operation of two 3 phase alternators?
A : 3
B : 6
C : 8
D : 10

156 : What is the name of the instrument used to indicate the correct time for parallel operation of alternators?
A : Megger
B : Phase sequence meter
C : Synchroscope
D : Centre zero ammeter

157 : Which is the exact instant of parallel operation of alternators in Weston synchroscope illustrated?

A : Indicating the fast direction
B : Indicating the slow direction
C : Visible at its central position
D : Oscillating in between fast and slow

158 : Which instrument is the special form of power factor method?
A : Synchroscope
B : Frequency meter
C : Wattmeter
D : Phase sequence meter

159 : Which is used in Weston type electro dynamo meter synchroscope?
A : Iron vane
B : Fixed coil
C : Transformer
D : Permanent magnet

Wireman – Semester 3 Module 7 – AC Single phase induction motors
160 : What is the basic working principle of single phase universal motors?
A : Same as DC Motors
B : Faradays laws
C : Rotating magnetic field theory
D : Flemings right hand rule

161 : Which motor has very low starting torque?
A : Three phase squirrel cage motor
B : Three phase slip ring motor
C : Resistance start induction run motor
D : Universal motor

162 : Which type of rotor is used in capacitor start induction run single phase motor?
A : Slip ring type
B : Commutator type
C : Wound rotor type
D : Squirrel cage type

163 : How many number of windings are there in split phase resistance type induction motor?
A : 1
B : 2
C : 3
D : 4

164 : Which winding circuit will have more resistance in split phase resistance type induction motor?
A : Main winding
B : Compensating winding
C : Auxilary winding
D : Damper winding

165 : Which motor operates without centrifugal switch?
A : Permanent capacitor motor
B : Capacitor start capacitor run motor
C : Capacitor start induction run motor
D : Resistance induction run motor

166 : Which winding is disconnected by the centrifugal switch in split phase resistance type induction motor
A : Main winding
B : Auxilary winding
C : Compensating winding
D : Damper winding

167 : Which speed the centrifugal switch acts in a single phase induction motor?
A : About 70% of speed
B : About 25% of speed
C : About 50% of speed
D : At full speed

168 : Which single phase induction motor has high starting torque?
A : Split phase induction motor
B : Capacitor start induction run motor
C : Shaded pole motor
D : Two value Capacitor motor

169 : Which winding is disconnected at 70% of speed in a capacitor start induction run motor?
A : Auxilary winding
B : Main winding
C : Running winding
D : Damper winding

170 : What is the another name of main winding in a single phase capacitor start induction run motor?
A : Auxilary winding
B : Damper winding
C : Running winding
D : Starting winding

171 : What is the part marked as X?

A : Main coil
B : Shading coil
C : Yoke
D : Poles

172 : What is the material used to make the shading coil of a shaded pole motor?
A : Aluminium
B : Brass
C : Silver
D : Copper

173 : Which single phase motor operates in both AC and DC supply?
A : Shaded pole motor
B : Two value Capacitor motor
C : Universal motor
D : Split phase induction motor

174 : What is the another name of Universal motor?
A : AC single phase series motor
B : Three phase induction motor
C : Shaded pole motor
D : Synchronous motor

175 : Which of the motor has wound rotor and commutator?
A : Capacitor start capacitor run motor
B : Capacitor start induction run motor
C : Shaded pole motor
D : Universal motor

176 : What is the value of starting torque for a universal motor?
A : 100 % of full load torque
B : Below 50% of full load torque
C : 450 % of full load torque
D : 150 % of full load torque

177 : Which motor runs at synchronous speed?
A : Capacitor start induction run motor
B : Shaded pole motor
C : Universal motor
D : Hysteresis motor

178 : Which motor stator is wound for three phase?
A : Reluctance motor
B : Capacitor start induction run motor
C : Shaded pole motor
D : Universal motor

179 : Which motor stator consists of multiple salient electro magnet poles?
A : Shaded pole motor
B : Repulsion motor
C : Capacitor start induction run motor
D : Universal motor

180 : Which of the motor has step movements?
A : Shaded pole motor
B : Repulsion motor
C : Stepper motor
D : Universal motor

181 : Which type of winding is done in the repulsion motor?
A : Distributed AC winding
B : DC lap or wave winding
C : Damper winding
D : Compensating winding

182 : Which motor is used in food mixer?
A : Universal motor
B : Stepper motor
C : Capacitor start induction run motor
D : Repulsion motor

183 : Which motor is used for refrigerators and air conditioners?
A : Universal motor
B : Stepper motor
C : Capacitor start induction run motor
D : Two value Capacitor motor

184 : Which motor is used in toys and hair dryers?
A : Stepper motor
B : Universal motor
C : Shaded pole motor
D : Synchronous motor

185 : What is the speed of rotating magnetic field in a 3f induction motor?
A : Rotor speed
B : Synchronous speed
C : Motor speed
D : Rated speed

186 : Which equation is used for calculation synetronous speed of 3f induction motor.

187 : What is the synchronosis speed of a 3 phase induction motor if the supply frequency is 50 Hz and number of pole is 4?
A : 1400 rpm
B : 1500 rpm
C : 1450 rpm
D : 1000 rpm

188 : Name the part marked as X?

A : Terminal box
B : Yoke/Irame
C : Stator winding
D : Laminated steel core

189 : Which material is used to wound rotor of squirrel cage induction motor?
A : Aluminium
B : Enamelled copper conductor
C : Silicon steel
D : Copper bars

190 : Which part of squirrel cage rotor is short circuited?
A : End rings
B : Shaft
C : End cover hysteresis
D : Bearings

191 : Why the core of 3f induction motor is laminated?
A : To reduce friction loss
B : To reduce eddy current loss
C : To reduce hysterism loss
D : To reduce starting current

192 : What is the equation for rotor frequency of 3-phase induction motor?

Wireman – Semester 3 Module 8 – AC 3 Phase Induction motor

193 : Which formula is used to find percentage slip in 3q induction?

194 : Which speed of 3-phase induction motor runs?
A : Above synchronous speed
B : Below synchronous speed
C : Equal to synchronous speed
D : At slip speed

195 : What is the value of slip at the time of starting of 3 phase induction motor?
A : Two
B : Three
C : One
D : Zero

196 : Which is directly proportional to torque in 3 phase induction motor?
A : Rotor power factor
B : Stator frequency
C : Number of poles
D : Supply voltage

197 : What is phase angle difference between three windings in three phase squirrel cage induction motor?
A : 360°
B : 90°
C : 120°
D : 30°

198 : Which material is used to wound outer cage rotor bars of a double squirrelcage induction motor?
A : Brass
B : Aluminium
C : Copper
D : Silicon steel

199 : Which type of rotor is used in squirrelcage induction motor?
A : Wound type
B : Squirrel cage
C : Slipring type
D : Projecting type

200 : Why rotor bars of squirrel cage induction motor is skewed?
A : Reduce magnetic humming
B : Reduce losses
C : Improve efficiency
D : Improve capacity

201 : How to change the direction of rotation of a 3f squirrel cage induction motor?
A : By interchanging three terminals
B : By interchanging any two terminals
C : By disconnecting one terminal
D : By reducing the applied voltage

202 : Which type of starter is recommended to start upto 3 HP squirrelcage induction motors?
A : DOL starter
B : Auto transfer starter
C : Star-delta starter
D : Rotor resistance starter

203 : Which starter is in simple expensive and easy to start?
A : Rotor resistance starter
B : DOL starter
C : Semi automatic star delta starter
D : Auto transformer starter

204 : Which device in DOL starter provides effective protection against over load?
A : Holding coil
B : Back up fuse
C : Thermal relay
D : Push button switch

205 : How many number of contactors are used in a semi automatic star delta starter?
A : 6
B : 4
C : 5
D : 3

206 : Which type of AC 3 phase motor starter this BIS symbol represents?

A : Star delta starter
B : Rheostatic starter
C : Direct online starter
D : Pole changing starter

207 : Name the part marked as X in manual star delta starter?

A : Plunger
B : Lever plate
C : Stop button
D : Over load relay setting

208 : Which is the additional device used in automatic star delta starter than semi automatic star delta starter?
A : Push button station
B : Timer
C : OLR
D : Number of contacts

209 : How many times of starting current in 3f induction motor is reduced, while starting by star delta starter?
A : 3 times
B : 1/3 times
C :
D : 1/2 times

210 : Which device is used in control of a star delta starter to stop the motor?
A : OLR
B : Star contactor
C : Delta contactor
D : Normally closed push button

211 : What is the name of the starter symbol?

A : D.O.L starter
B : Auto transformer starter
C : Automatic star/delta starter
D : Semi automatic star/delta starter

212 : What is the name of the A.C motor starter?

A : DOL starter
B : Auto transformer starter
C : Semi automatic star delta starter
D : Fully automatic star delta starter

213 : Which type of starter is used with reduced voltage tappings for 3 phase induction motor?
A : D.O.L starter
B : Star delta starter
C : Auto transformer starter
D : Rotor resistance starter

214 : How the voltage is reduced in auto transformer starter at the time of starting?
A : By reducing supply voltage
B : By adjusting the tappings by handle
C : By using step down transformer
D : By adding resistance with rotor

215 : Which induction motor, the external resistance is added to rotor circuit?
A : Squirrel cage induction motor
B : Double squirrel cage induction motor
C : Slip ring induction motor
D : Single phase induction motor

216 : Which motor is used to produce high starting torque at variable speed?
A : Repulsion motor
B : Permanent capacitor motor
C : 3 Phase slip ring induction motor
D : 3 Phase single squirrel cage induction motor

217 : Why slip ring induction motor is fitted with wound rotor?
A : To reduce the slip
B : To control the speed
C : To reduce the losses
D : To get high starting and running torque

218 : Which type of starter is used to start and run the 3 phase slip ring induction motor?
A : Direct on-line starter
B : Rotor rheostat starter
C : Auto transformer starter
D : Manual star-delta starter

219 : What is the purpose of using rotor resistance starter to start 3 phase slip ring induction motor?
A : Reduce rotor voltage
B : Increase rotor current
C : Increase the starting torque
D : Reduce the power loss

220 : Why external resistance is included in the rotor circuit at starting through 3 phase slipring induction motor starter?
A : To get high running torque
B : To reduce high starting current
C : To reduce the load current
D : To get increased speed at starting

221 : What is the effect of motor, if the rotor windings in slipring induction motor is open circuited at starting?
A : Will not run
B : Runs at slow speed
C : Runs at very high speed
D : Runs but not able to pull load

222 : Which method is used to control the speed of 3 phase induction motor from stator side?
A : By cascade operation
B : By rotor rheostat control
C : By injecting emf in rotor circuit
D : By changing the applied frequency

223 : Which speed control method of 3 f motor is used only induction motor supplied by generator?
A : Casecade operation method
B : By changing the number of stator poles
C : By injection Emf in rotor circuit
D : By changing the supplied voltage

224 : Which method of speed control is only applicable for 3 phase slipring induction motor?
A : Casecade operation method
B : Rotor rheostat speed control
C : Changing the applied frequency method
D : Changing the number of stator poles method

225 : Which method of speed control of 3 phase induction motor above and below normal speed can be obtained?
A : By rotor rheostat control
B : By changing applied voltage
C : By injecting EMF in rotor circuit
D : By changing the number of stator poles

226 : Which method of speed control of 3 phase induction motor only two speeds can be obtained?
A : By cascade operation
B : By changing the applied voltage
C : By changing the supply frequency
D : By changing the number of stator poles

227 : Which method of speed control can beobtained from rotor side of 3 phase induction motor?
A : Voltage control
B : Cascade operation
C : Pole changing control
D : Supply frequency control

228 : Which principle the current sensing single phasing preventor works?
A : Equal currents with balanced loads
B : Different currents with balanced loads
C : Equal currents with unbalanced loads
D : Different currents with unbalanced loads

229 : What is called, if the order of 3 phase supply voltages reach the maximum value?
A : Phase relation
B : Phase sequence
C : Single phasing
D : Phase distortion

230 : What is the purpose of single phasing preventor?
A : Protects the motor by stopping automatically under balanced load
B : Provides three phase supply in sequence order
C : Prevents the motor from short circuit fault
D : Prevent the motor from over load

231 : Which type of single phase preventer is used for the motor with constant load?
A : Mechanical single phasing preventor with bimetal relay
B : Mechanical single phasing preventer with coils
C : Voltage sewing single phasing preventer
D : Current sewing single phasing preventer

Wireman – Semester 3 Module 9 – Power wiring of motors

232 : Which board can be accessed from rear as well as from front side?
A : Switch board
B : Panel board
C : Danger board
D : Main switch board

233 : How the name identification boards are fixed on the panel?
A : Welded
B : Riveted
C : Brazed
D : Soldered

234 : What is the name of the accessory used to fix MCB and contactors in panel board?
A : Thimbles
B : G clamp
C : Din rail
D : Grommets

235 : When the isolation switch of a panel board should be operated?
A : In ON load condition
B : In normal load condition
C : In over load condition
D : In OFF load condition

236 : Which PVC material is used in panel board for providing pathway for wiring inside?
A : Raceways
B : Grommets
C : Din rail
D : Wire ferrules

237 : What is the function of ferrules in panel boards?
A : To identify the panel
B : To identify the switch
C : To identify the wire
D : To identify raceways

238 : What is the name of bushing used to prevent dirt,water and insects entering the panel board?
A : Raceways
B : Thimbles
C : Sleeves
D : Grommets

239 : What is the minimum clearance distance required infront of a panel or switch board?
A : 1 metre
B : 0.8 metre
C : 0.6 metre
D : 0.5 metre

240 : What is the name of part in a panel board where cables are completely enclosed?
A : Meter cabinet
B : Cable alley
C : Bus chamber
D : Cubicle

241 : Which part of a panel board should be earthed as per IE rule?
A : All live parts
B : All terminals
C : All metal parts
D : All bus bars

242 : What should be prepared first to design and estimate a panel board?
A : Schematic diagram
B : Panel board
C : Switchgears list
D : Accessories list

243 : What is the next step involved in panel design after preparing Schematic diagram?
A : Preparation of wiring diagram
B : Panel board measurement
C : Preparation of accessories list
D : Preparation of Meter cabinet

244 : What is the cutting angle value of iron angle in panel boards?
A : 90⁰
B : 75⁰
C : 60⁰
D : 45⁰

245 : Which is the name of preparation of control panel?

A : Fixing of Raceways
B : Fixing of G channel
C : Fixing of Din rail
D : Fixing of PVC channel

246 : What is the minimum clear distance required between bare conductors in panel board?
A : 2.5 cm
B : 10 cm
C : 3.8 cm
D : 1.2 cm

247 : What is the name of device used to fix and hold cables in a secure manner inside the panel board?
A : Thimbles
B : Grommets
C : Wire ferrules
D : Wire clip

248 : Which item is used to terminate the cable ends in a panel board?
A : Grommets
B : Wire ferrules
C : Thimbles
D : Raceways

249 : What is the part marked as x in the panel board?

A : Raceways
B : Bushing
C : Grommets
D : Thimbles

250 : What is the minimum number of earth terminals needed on a panel board
A : 2
B : 4
C : 3
D : 1

251 : What is the name of item used to fix the cables rigidly to the body of panel board?
A : Bushing
B : Grommets
C : Ferrules
D : Gland

252 : Which material is used to make earth bus bar in panel boards
A : Copper
B : Silver
C : Iron
D : PVC

253 : Which step is involved in testing load performance in panel boards?
A : Second step
B : First step
C : Last step
D : Third step

Wireman – Semester 4 Module 2 – Generation and transmission

1 : Which principle the transformer works?
A : Self induction
B : Mutual induction
C : Fall of potential
D : Lenzs law

2 : Which is the colour of fresh silica gel?
A : Green
B : Blue
C : Grey
D : Yellow

3 : Which part act as protective device in transformer?
A : Conservator tank
B : Tap changer
C : Temperature gauge
D : Buchholz relay

4 : Which part reduces the heat of transformer core and winding?
A : Transformer oil
B : Breather
C : Cooling tubes
D : Conservator tank

5 : What is the name of transformer?

A : Audio frequency transformer
B : High frequency transformer
C : Poly phase transformer
D : Current transformer

6 : Which transformer, the secondary voltage is same as that of primary voltage?
A : Ignition transformer
B : Pulse transformer
C : Isolation transformer
D : Instrument transformer

7 : What is the name of transformer?
A : Ring type transformer
B : Core type transformer
C : Current transformer
D : Air core transformer

8 : What is the emf equation of transformer?
:

9 : Which is denoted by the letter qm in the formula 4.44 FNqm ?
A : Maximum flux
B : No of turns in primary
C : No of turns in secondary
D : Frequency

10 : What is the name of transformer if the transformation ratio (K) is more than 1?
A : Step down transformer
B : Unity ratio transformer
C : Step up transformer
D : Auto transformer

Wireman – Semester 4 Module 2 – Generation and transmission

11 : Which is the transformation ratio?

12 : What is the name of transformer part?
A : ON load tap changer
B : H.V. Bushing termination
C : Manual tap changer
D : L.V. Bushing termination

13 : Which factor the copper loss of a transformer depends?
A : Current
B : Voltage
C : Square of current
D : Square of voltage

14 : Which is having high efficiency?
A : Transformer
B : Alternator
C : AC motor
D : DC motor

15 : Which formula is used to calculate the efficiency of transformer?

16 : Which is the formula for percentage voltage regulation?

17 : Which material is used for transformer bushings?
A : PVC
B : Porcelain
C : Plastic
D : Baklite

Wireman – Semester 4 Module 2 – Generation and transmission

18 : Which principle auto transformer works?
A : Lenzs law
B : Flemings right hand rule
C : Self induction
D : Mutual induction

19 : What is the name of test of single phase transformer?

A : Short circuit test
B : Open circuit test
C : Polarity test
D : Continuity test

20 : What is the connection name of transformer?

A : Star – star
B : Star -delta
C : Delta – delta
D : Delta – star

21 : Which is the name of connection?
A : Star – delta
B : Delta – delta
C : Scott connection
D : Star – star

22 : Which test of transformer oil is illustrated?

A : Field test of insulating oil
B : Dielectric test
C : Crackle test
D : Acidity test

23 : Where synthetic liquid transformer oil is used?
A : Generating station transformers
B : Primary substation transformers
C : Refineries and hazardous location
D : Secondary substation transformers

24 : Which part produces magnetic flux in a transformer?
A : Primary winding
B : Secondary winding
C : Tap charger
D : Core

25 : Which is the function of breather in transformer?
A : Observes heat
B : Indicate oil level
C : Prevents the moisture entry
D : Reduces tank pressure

26 : Why the transformer core is laminated?
A : To minimise the hysteresis losses
B : To minimise the eddy current loss
C : To minimise the copper loss
D : To minimise the friction loss

Wireman – Semester 4 Module 2 – Generation and transmission

27 : Why shell type core is used for medium and high voltage transformers?
A : To avoid leakage of flux
B : To reduce the tank size
C : For effective cooling
D : To reduce copper loss

28 : Which type of transformer is used in automobiles?
A : Instrument transformer
B : Ignition transtor
C : Scott connected transformer
D : Isolation transformer

29 : Which transformer is classified based on the shape of core?
A : Air core transformer
B : Shell type transformer
C : Audio frequency transformer
D : Instrument transformer

30 : Which is the application of ring type transformer?
A : High frequency measurement
B : High current measurement
C : Low frequency measurement
D : Power distribution

31 : How the capacity of transformers are rated?
A : KW
B : KVA
C : KWH
D : MW

32 : Which part of transformer is used to compensate the voltage drop to consumer receiving from generating station?
A : Iron core
B : Secondary winding
C : Primary winding
D : Tap changer

33 : Which condition the efficiency of a transformer is maximum?
A : Copper is loss is less than iron loss
B : Copper loss = iron loss
C : Copper loss is more than iron loss
D : Copper loss is 1/2 times of iron loss

34 : Which loss is a variable loss?
A : Copper loss
B : Iron loss
C : Friction loss
D : Windage loss

35 : Which loss is determined by conducting short circuit test?
A : Friction loss
B : Windage loss
C : Iron loss
D : Copper loss

36 : Which loss is constant for no load and all load conditions?
A : Windage loss
B : Iron loss
C : Copper loss
D : Friction loss

37 : Which is the purpose of bushings in transformer?
A : To connect primary terminals only
B : To connect both input and output terminas
C : To connect secondary terminals only
D : To connect the neutral terminals

38 : Which type of test is known as DGA test in transformer bushing testing?
A : Measurement of partial discharge
B : Moisture analysis
C : Dielectric gas analysis
D : Dissolved gas analysis

39 : Which is the advatage of auto transformer over two winding transformer?
A : Can isolate the secondary from primary
B : Better voltage regulation
C : Used for power distribution
D : Can be used in EHT supply

40 : Which is the application of auto transformer?
A : Servo line correctors
B : For low voltage distribution
C : To measure the voltage
D : To measure the current

41 : Which is the purpose of parallel operation of transformers?
A : To reduce the voltage drop
B : To increase the output voltage
C : To reduce the no of transformer
D : Provides more reliability of power

42 : Which condition is to be satisfied before connecting two single phase transformer in parallel?
A : Phase sequence must be same
B : Type must be same
C : Polarity must be same
D : Capacity must be same

43 : Which is the application of scott connection?
A : Transform 3 phase to 2 phase
B : To stabilize the output voltage
C : To get rated power output
D : Transform 3 phase to 6 phase

44 : Which type of cooling is employed for distribution transformer upto 100 KVA?
A : Natural air method
B : Oil blast method
C : Air blast method
D : Forced circulation of oil

45 : Which is the purpose of cooling of transformer?
A : To improve the efficiency
B : To protect the winding from damage
C : To regulate the voltage
D : To increase the life of transformer oil

46 : Which method of cooling the fans are used to blow air on the surface of transformer?
A : Forced oil and water cooled
B : Air blast method
C : Oil and water cooled method
D : Oil blast method

47 : Which is the cause for deterioration of transformer oil?
A : Due to over load
B : Insufficient cooling
C : Long time use
D : Due to atmosphere air come into contact with oil

48 : Which is conventional power generation?
A : Thermal
B : Solar
C : Biogas
D : Wind energy

49 : Which fuel is used to generate heat energy in thermal power station?
A : Coal
B : Wood
C : Biogas
D : Kerosene

50 : Which is the name of part marked as x of hydro electric plant?

A : Surge tank
B : Valve house
C : Penstock
D : Reservoir

51 : Which is the name of part marked as x?

A : Nozzle
B : Pelton wheel
C : Operating head
D : Spear

52 : Which is the name of power station?

A : Hydro power station
B : Thermal power station
C : Nuclear power station
D : Diesel power station

53 : What is the name of part that increases the pressure of air supplied to engine to increase power in diesel power plant?
A : Governing system
B : Cooling system
C : Fuel system
D : Super charger

54 : Which device further raises the temperature of steam in thermal power station?
A : Boiler
B : Super heater
C : Economiser
D : Air preheater

55 : What is full form of PWR in nuclear power plants?
A : Pressurized water reactor
B : Pressurized water resource
C : Pressurized water restore
D : Pressurized water receiver

56 : Which material is used to made moderator in nuclear reactor?
A : Graphite
B : Uranium
C : Nickel
D : Copper

57 : How sun heat energy is converted into electrical energy?
A : By solar cells
B : By reflecting the sunlight
C : Thermo couple method
D : By radiation method

58 : Which converts rotor rotation into high speed and rotate the electrical generator in wind power generation?
A : Turbine controller
B : ISU grid
C : Gear box
D : Chopper

59 : Which is the voltage range of secondary distribution?
A : 66KV
B : 33KV
C : 11KV
D : 415V

60 : Which type of transmission is adopted for AC power transmission?
A : Single phase two wire
B : Two phase three wire
C : Three phase three wire
D : Three phase four wire

61 : What is the name of conductor used in over head lines?
A : ACSR
B : Iron
C : Brass
D : Copper

62 : Which is the important property of OH line supports?
A : High mechanical strength
B : Withstand Heavy weight
C : High conductivity
D : Low specific gravity

63 : Which is the span length of steel tower?
A : 40-50 meter
B : 50-80 meter
C : 60-100 meter
D : 100-300 meter

64 : Which height the stay insulators are to be fixed?
A : Not below 1 m from ground
B : Not below 1.5 m from ground
C : Not below 2 m from ground
D : Not below 3 meters from ground

65 : Which is the name of insulator?

A : Suspension insulator
B : Stay insulator
C : Shackle insulator
D : Post insulator

66 : Which is the name of insulator?

A : Pin insulator
B : Stay insulator
C : Shackle insulator
D : Disc insulator

67 : Which is the clearance between live conductors in OH.LT. vertical configuration?
A : 20 cm
B : 30 cm
C : 40 cm
D : 50 cm

68 : What is the purpose of applying grease in binded aluminium joints in OH lines?
A : Avoid sparking
B : Avoid oxidation
C : Avoid loose connection
D : Fill the gap between turns

69 : What is minimum clearance between earth and live conductor in LT vertical configuration?
A : 10 cm
B : 15 cm
C : 25 cm
D : 30 cm

70 : Which is the conductivity of aluminium compared to copper?
A : 30%
B : 40%
C : 50%
D : 60%

71 : Which is the height of bus-bar assembly to be installed from ground?
A : 1 m
B : 1.5 m
C : 2 m
D : 2.75 m

72 : What is the name of material used for bus bar?
A : Brass
B : High speed steel
C : Bronze
D : Aluminium

73 : Which is non conventional power generation?
A : Wind
B : Nuclear
C : Thermal
D : Hydro

74 : Which is the suitable place for construction of hydro power plant?
A : Hill area
B : Seashore
C : Islands
D : Deserts

75 : Which is the main disadvantage of hydro power plant?
A : High capital cost
B : Complicated construction
C : High maintenance cost
D : Requires long starting time

76 : Which is the advantage of diesel power plant over thermal plant?
A : More efficient
B : Less noise
C : Low maintenance cost
D : High unit capacity

77 : Which device heats the feed water on its way to boiler by deriving heat from the flue gases in thermal power plant?
A : Super heater
B : Economiser
C : Air preheater
D : Condenser

78 : Which part convert potential energy into kinetic energy in tidal power plant?
A : Sluices
B : Embankments
C : Turbines
D : Barrage

79 : Which is the disadvantage of AC electric power transmission?
A : Skin effect
B : More voltage fluctuation
C : Required transformer for voltage step up/down
D : More line loss

80 : Which is the advantage of DC electric power transmission?
A : Required only two conductors
B : No communication problem due to high voltae
C : No need of transformer
D : High voltage transmission

81 : Which is the voltage range transmitted to load center in primary transmission?
A : 11KV
B : 33KV
C : 66KV
D : 132KV

82 : Which is the voltage range transmitted in secondary transmission system?
A : 11 KV
B : 11.5 KV
C : 12 KV
D : 66 KV

83 : Which is the property of conducting materials used for OH lines?
A : High tensile strength
B : High specific gravity
C : High dielectric strength
D : Easy available in the market

84 : How many disc of suspension insulators are to be connected in series for a 66KV working voltage?
A : 2
B : 3
C : 4
D : 6

85 : Which insulator is used for terminating corner poles?
A : Pin insulator
B : Shackle insulators
C : Stay insulator
D : Cap and pin type insulator

86 : Which is the size of binding wires used to bind insulator in OH lines?
A : Not less than 1sq.mm
B : Not less than 1.5sq.mm
C : Not less than 2sq .mm
D : Not less than 2.5sq.mm

87 : Which is the minimum clearance between live wires on either side of a support in OH horizontal configuration of conductors?
A : 10 cm
B : 25 cm
C : 30 cm
D : 45 cm

Wireman – Semester 4 Module 3 – Distribution and protection

88 : Which distribution system is used for domestic light and appliances?
A : Single phase two wire
B : Three phase three wire
C : Two phase Two wire
D : Single Phase one wire

89 : What is a interconnected distribution system?
A : Distributor gets supply from one source
B : Distributor gets supply from two locations
C : Distributor gets supply direct from substation
D : Distributor gets supply from more than two locations

90 : What is service main?
A : The cable carrying supply from distributor to meter of consumer
B : The cable carrying supply from meter to load
C : The cable carrying supply from generating station to transformer
D : The cable carrying supply from transformer to over head line

91 : What is feeder?
A : The line carrying supply from generating station to distributors
B : The cable carrying supply from transformer to over head lines
C : The cable carrying supply from meter to load
D : The cable carrying supply from distributor to meter of consumer

92 : What is distributor?
A : The conductors providing supply to transmission lines.
B : The conductors providing supply to distribution line
C : The conductors providing supply to service main
D : The conductors providing supply to a power transformer

93 : Where steel towers are used?
A : Transmission lines
B : Primary distribution lines
C : Secondary distribution lines
D : For telephone lines

94 : Which is used to carry higher voltage for long distance transmission?
A : Feeder
B : Distributor
C : Service main
D : Service wire

95 : Which conductor is used in over head lines?
A : Copper conductor
B : Aluminium Conductor
C : ACSR Conductor
D : Steel Conductor

96 : What is distribution system?
A : Supply from substation to consumer
B : Supply from generating station to substation
C : Generation of power in a generating station.
D : Supply from generating station to transmission line

97 : How the size of feeder is decided?
A : On the basis of line voltage
B : On the Basis of current of the line
C : On the basis of length of line
D : On the basis of height of line

98 : Where underground distribution system is preferred?
A : Open areas
B : In forests
C : Highly populated area
D : Hill areas

99 : What is the advantage of underground distribution system?
A : High installation cost
B : Difficult to trace the faults
C : Lower life span
D : Good appearance

100 : Which is a part of over head line?
A : Lead sheath
B : Stay wire
C : Armouring
D : Cable trench

101 : Which is a line protecting device?
A : Bus bar
B : Isolating switch
C : Insulator
D : Circuit Breaker

102 : Which type of isolater consists of four arms and at the end of arm silver plated copper contacts are fixed?
A : Single brake isolater
B : Double brake isolater
C : Pantograph isolater
D : Bus side isolater

103 : Which motor is fitted with single phasing relay?
A : Single Phase motors
B : DC shunt motor
C : DC series motor
D : Three phase motors

104 : Which is the name of relay used to protect turbo generators from internal fault?
A : Earth fault relay
B : Inverse time relay
C : Under voltage relay
D : Differential relay

105 : Which type of distribution is used in residential area?
A : Single phase two wire
B : Three phase three wire
C : Two phase Two wire
D : Three phase four wire

106 : Which distribution system is energised by more than two generating station?
A : Radial system
B : Ring main system
C : Inter connected system
D : DC system

107 : Which supply can provide supply for 3 phase as well as single phase load?
A : Single phase two wire
B : Two phase two wire
C : Three phase three wire
D : Three phase four wire

Wireman – Semester 4 Module 4 – Substation and equipment

108 : Which is a circuit breaker?
A : Power factor improvement device
B : Protect from under voltage
C : Controlling device
D : Protect from over voltage

109 : Which is the full form of VCB?
A : Variable circuit breaker
B : Voltage control breaker
C : Vacuum circuit breaker
D : Vacuum control breaker

110 : Which condition circuit breaker operates?
A : Low current
B : Over current
C : Under voltage
D : Over voltage

111 : Which material is used for insulating of outer body of vacuum circuit breaker?
A : Glass or ceramic
B : Iron
C : Stainless steel
D : Ebonite

112 : Which circuit breaker is used in rural area?
A : OCB
B : SF6
C : vacuum circuit breaker
D : ACB

113 : Which is circuit breaker is best suited for capacitor bank switching?
A : Vacuum circuit breaker
B : air blast circuit breaker
C : SF6
D : Oil circuit breaker

114 : Which part of the circuit breaker is helpful in breaking the circuit?
A : Trip coil
B : Operating rod
C : Supporting champer
D : Circuit breaking champer

115 : What is the full form of ACB?
A : Automatic circuit breaker
B : Acutal circuit breaker
C : Alloy circuit breaker
D : Air circuit breaker

116 : What is the medium of arc quenching in an air circuit breaker?
A : Oil
B : water
C : Nitrogen
D : Air

117 : How circuit breakers arc rated?
A : Ampere
B : Voltage
C : Megawatt
D : MVA

118 : Which type of transformer, the current transformer comes under?
A : Idel transformer
B : Step down transformer
C : Step up transformer
D : Instrument transformer

119 : What is the secondary voltage of PT?
A : 440 V
B : 11000 V
C : 660 V
D : 110 V

120 : What current the secondary of a CT is designed?
A : 2 Amp
B : 3 Amp
C : 4 Amp
D : 5 Amp

121 : What action is required before disconnecting the ammeter connected with CT?
A : Remove the earth of CT
B : short the secondary of CT
C : Opened the secondary side of CT
D : Switch OFF total supply

122 : Which is the use of lighting arrester in HT line?
A : Protect the transformers from surge
B : For short circuit protection
C : For open circuit protection
D : For leakage protection

Wireman – Semester 4 Module 4 – Substation and equipment

123 : What is the name of device used for protection against lightning in over head line?
A : Air circuit breaker
B : Oil circuit breaker
C : Lightning arrester
D : Isolator

124 : Which is the function of a lightning arrester?
A : Protection from over current
B : Protection from leakage current
C : Protection from lower current
D : Protection from over voltage due to lightning

125 : Which gas is used as insulator in circuit breaker?
A : Nitrogen
B : Oxygen
C : Hydrogen
D : SF6

126 : Which circuit breaker has the lowest voltage range?
A : Air-break circuit breaker
B : Oil circuit breaker
C : Vacuum circuit breaker
D : SF6 circuit breaker

127 : Which is the purpose of circuit breaker?
A : To monitor over voltage
B : Protection and control
C : Protection and monitor heat
D : Monitor under voltage

128 : Which is a part of oil circuit breaker?
A : Insulating vessel
B : Arc shield
C : Arc splitters
D : Moving Contact

129 : What is the main purpose of oil in oil circuit breaker?
A : Provide insulation
B : Quenching arc
C : Providing cooling for contacts
D : Act as lubrication

130 : What is the full name of SF6 circuit breaker?
A : Soda flouride circuit breaker
B : Sulphur hexaflouride circuit breaker
C : Sodium flouride circuit breaker
D : Sodium bicarbonate circuit breaker

131 : What is the medium of arc quenching in an oil circuit breaker ?
A : Oil
B : Water
C : Nitrogen
D : Air

132 : Why aluminium is used as busbar material?
A : Low density
B : Low cost
C : Easy to fabrication
D : Low resistance

133 : Which metal is used as contacts in substation switches?
A : Brass
B : Copper
C : Silver
D : Tungsten

134 : What is indoor sub-station?
A : Sub-station constructed outside the building
B : Sub-station constructed inside the building
C : Pole mounted sub-station
D : The substation laid under ground

135 : Which material is used for making bus bars in indoor substation?
A : Silver
B : Steel
C : Copper
D : Gold

136 : What is the purpose of Indoor substation?
A : To step up voltage
B : To step down the voltage
C : To increase the power of transformer
D : To regulate the voltage

137 : How many types of outdoor sub-station?
A : One
B : Two
C : Three
D : Four

138 : How the busbar is rated?
A : Voltage
B : Current and voltage
C : Watt
D : KVA

139 : Why stones are provided in sub-stations?
A : To avoid the growing of plants and for insulation
B : To support the poles
C : To support the transformers
D : To avoid slippery

140 : How many types of outdoor sub-station?
A : One
B : Two
C : Three
D : Four

141 : What is function of outdoor sub-station?
A : Change AC supply into DC supply
B : Change DC supply into AC supply
C : High voltage supply step down into low voltage supply
D : Low voltage is stepped up into high voltage

142 : Which of those circuit breaker is sufficient for extra high tension line?
A : Air blast circuit breaker
B : SF6 circuit breaker
C : Minimum oil circuit breaker
D : Bulk oil circuit breaker

143 : How many poles used in pole mounted outdoor sub-station?
A : Three
B : Six
C : Two
D : Eight

144 : Which system pole mounted substations are used?
A : Primary distribution
B : Secondary distribution
C : Primary transmission
D : Secondary transmission

145 : Which is the name of substation used to change the supply frequency?
A : Converting substation
B : Switching substation
C : Secondary substation
D : Stepup substation

Wireman – Semester 4 Module 5 – UG CABLE

146 : Which is the outer layer of an under ground cable?
A : Armour
B : Lead sheath
C : Serving
D : Bedding

147 : Which material is used for metallic sheathing in underground cable?
A : Copper
B : Aluminium
C : Nichrome
D : Lead

148 : Which material is used for armouring of underground cable?
A : Galvanised steel
B : Copper
C : Cast iron
D : CRGO steel

149 : Which conductor material is used for under ground cable?
A : ACSR
B : Aluminium
C : Steel
D : Nichrome

150 : What is the function of armouring in under ground cable?
A : To avoid mechanical injury to cable
B : To prevent entry of moisture
C : To protect the metallic sheath
D : To provide flexibility to cable

151 : Why stranded conductors are used in underground cable?
A : To provide flexibility
B : To reduce conductivity
C : To provide mechanical strength
D : To reduce the weight

152 : Which is the property of insulating materials used in under ground cable?
A : Hygroscopic
B : High insulation resistance
C : Low mechanical strength
D : High conductivity

153 : Which type of insulation is also known as empire type?
A : Impregnated paper
B : Varnished cambric
C : Polyvinyl Chloride
D : Rubber

154 : What is the drawback of rubber insulation used in under ground cable ?
A : Absorbs moisture
B : Hard
C : Low mechanical strength
D : High hygroscopic

155 : What is the advantage of Vulcanised Indian Rubber ?
A : Safe temperature is high
B : Hygroscopic
C : Greater mechanical strength
D : High conductivity

156 : What is the voltage rating of Super tension cables ?
A : up to 1100 V
B : up to 11000 V
C : 22 kV to 33 kV
D : beyond 132 kV

157 : What is the voltage rating of Extra super voltage cables ?
A : beyond 132 kV
B : up to 11000 V
C : 22 kV to 33 kV
D : up to 1100 V

158 : Which is the classification of underground cable according to their insulation system?
A : Single core cable
B : XLPE cable
C : Low tension cable
D : Super tension cable

159 : What is the full form of MI cables ?
A : Metal Insulated cables
B : Mineral Insulated cables
C : Mineral Inserted cables
D : Metal Inserted cables

160 : How many cores are in a three and half core under ground cable ?
A : Three
B : Four
C : Two
D : Five

161 : Which type of cable is used if the operating voltage is greater than 66 KV ?
A : Belted cables
B : Screened cables
C : H type cable
D : Pressure cables

162 : Which are the types of pressure cables ?
A : Oil filled and gas pressure cables
B : Belted cables and screened cables
C : H type and SL type cables
D : H type and belted cables

163 : Which method of laying involves digging a trench in the ground and laying cable on a bedding of sand ?
A : Laying in ducts
B : Laying direct in ground
C : Laying on racks
D : Solid system of laying

164 : Which method of cable laying is used inside buildings and industrial plants?
A : Direct laying in ground
B : Laying in ducts
C : Laying on racks in air
D : solid system of laying

165 : What is the name of the cable laying method?

A : Laying into ducts
B : Laying direct in ground
C : Laying along building
D : Laying on racks in air

166 : What is the advantage of direct laying of underground cable ?
A : Simple and less costly
B : Easy extension of load
C : Alteration is easy
D : Easy fault location

167 : Which method of cable laying, The cable in protected by sand (or) layer of bricks?
A : Laying cables along building
B : Laying cables direct in grounds
C : Laying cables into ducts
D : Laying cables on racks in air

168 : What is the full form of PILC?
A : Paper impregrated lead sheathed cable
B : Paper insulated lead sheathed cables
C : Paper input lead sheathed cable
D : Polyvinyl impregrated lead sheathed cable

169 : What is the name of the U.G. cable joint?

A : Tee joint
B : Straight through sleeve joint
C : Epoxy straight joint
D : Tri-furcating end connection

170 : What is maximum voltage grade of U.G. cable straight sleeve joints can be made?
A : Up to 1.1 KV
B : Up to 3.3 KV
C : Up to 11.0 KV
D : Above 11 KV

171 : What is the use of Tri- furcating end connections?
A : To connect UG cables to AB switches etc.
B : To make straight through joints of UG cable
C : To make Tee joint of UG cable
D : To test the UG cable

172 : Which is the property of bituminous compound used for hot pouring cable joint?
A : Low electrical strength
B : High electrical strength
C : High resistance to moisture
D : Low viscosity

173 : Which is the common fault likely to occur in under ground cable?
A : Open circuit fault
B : Ground fault
C : Short circuit
D : Leakage fault

174 : Which test is used for locating ground and short circuit fault in UG cable?
A : Open circuit test
B : Short circuit test
C : Loop test
D : Ground test

175 : Which type of cable fault will occur, If the insulation between two conductors is faulty?
A : Ground fault
B : Open circuit fault
C : Short circuit fault
D : Leakage current fault

176 : Which cable fault is caused due to the flow of current from the core to the lead sheath?
A : Ground fault
B : Short circuit fault
C : Leakage current fault
D : Open circuit fault

Wireman – Semester 4 Module 6 – SYNCHRONISING OF ALTERNATOR

177 : What is the necessity of syncronising of alternators?
A : To increase the voltage
B : To increase the voltage
C : To meet the increased power demand
D : Top minimise the current

178 : Which is the condition for paralleling of two alternators?
A : Frequency must be same
B : Frequency must be same
C : Rating must be same
D : Phase sequence must be different

179 : What is the condition of incoming alternators voltages for synchronising of alternators?
A : Out put voltage of alternators must be different
B : Out put voltage of alternators must be different
C : Voltage of incoming alternator must be more
D : Incoming voltage of alternator must be less

180 : When the three lamps used in dark lamp method will light and go out simultaneously?
A : Frequencies of machines are different
B : Frequencies of machines are different
C : Speed of alternators are same
D : Out put voltage of alternators are same

181 : What is the use of dark and bright lamp method?
A : To start the alternator
B : To start the alternator
C : For synchronising of alternators
D : To change the excitation

182 : Which instrument is used for parallel operation of alternators?
A : Synchroscope
B : Synchroscope
C : Phase sequence meter
D : Centre zero ammeter

183 : What is the purpose of synchroscope for synchronising of alternators?
A : To check the voltages
B : To check the voltages
C : Indicate the difference in voltage and phase sequence
D : To indicate the exact time for synchronising

184 : What basis the load is shared by the two alternators after synchronised?
A : Sharing the load equally irrespective of KVA ratings
B : Sharing the load equally irrespective of KVA ratings
C : Based on the proportion of their KVA ratings
D : Sharing the load according to their voltage ratings

Wireman – Semester 4 Module 7 – Control panel wiring and maintenance

185 : Which colour is to be powder coated (painted) on a control panel as per IE rule?
A : Light blue
B : Siemens Gray
C : Yellow
D : Dark blue

186 : Which electrical items are to be fitted in a control panel?
A : Switches and indicators only
B : Bus bar only
C : Safety equipments ony
D : Switching, control, safety and measuring devices

187 : Which duty cycle of contactor used for the application of Crane,Lift,and hoist in AC?
A : AC 2
B : AC 4
C : DC 1
D : DC 2

188 : Which factor is to be considered while designing the control panel dimensions?
A : Height of panel
B : Width of panel
C : Length of panel
D : Swing area of cabinet doors

189 : Which is the amount of additional load to be considered before selecting the protective accessories for a motor in control panel?
A : 25%
B : 50%
C : 75%
D : 100%

190 : What is the name of switch?

A : Change over switch
B : Pole changing switch
C : Ammeter selector switch
D : Voltmeter selector switch

191 : What type of switch unsuitable for portable (or) mobile devices?
A : Push button switch
B : Pole changing switch
C : Mercury switch
D : Limit switch

192 : which is used with ammeter to measure high current in panel board?
A : Current Transformer
B : Control Transformer
C : Potential Transformer
D : Power Transformer

193 : Which switch is used to control the distance or angles of movement of any machine part or axis or object?
A : Mercury switch
B : Limit switch
C : Push button switch
D : Selector switch

194 : What is the name of accessory used in control panel?

A : Indication Lamp
B : Timer
C : Rectifier
D : Push button switch

195 : Which accessory is used in control panel to mount MCB,Contactor etc.without using screw?
A : Race way
B : DIN rail
C : Gromet
D : PVC channel

196 : What is the use of wire ferrule in control panel wiring?
A : Harnessing the cable
B : Insulating the cable
C : Easy identification of cable end
D : To protect the wire from heat

197 : What is the name of part marked as X in nylone cable tie?

A : Button
B : Head
C : Thimble
D : Pawl

198 : Which accessory is used to insulate and hold the cables, if they pass through punched or drilled hole in control panel?
A : Grommet
B : PVC channel
C : Wire clips
D : Wire sleeves

199 : Which is the minimum spacing between components and raceways in panel board if system voltage is 415V?
A : 50 mm
B : 100mm
C : 60 mm
D : 75 mm

200 : Which colour of earth wire is used in control panel to earth door and cabinet?
A : Red
B : Yellow
C : Blue
D : Green yellow

201 : Which test is to be done regularly in panel board with priority?
A : Main power contacts condition
B : Insulation resistance and earth continuity
C : MCB connection
D : Filter and cooling fan

202 : Which is the advantage of periodical maintenance of control panel?
A : Reduces power cost
B : Assured over loading
C : Ensure safety to the machine and operators
D : Helps continuos operation

203 : Which type of fault will occur if the insulation of cable is damaged?
A : Earth fault
B : Open circuit
C : Short circuit
D : High value series resistance fault

204 : Which is the purpose of third terminal in insulation tester?
A : To measure more quantity
B : To extend the range
C : To use as a earth tester
D : To get accurate reading

205 : What is the name of instrument used to find out open circuit fault in control panel?
A : Earth tester
B : Ohm meter
C : Megger
D : Wheatstone bridge

206 : Why it is recommended to run power and control circuit cables seperatly in control panel?
A : For easy Identification
B : To Avoid transfer of heat from power cable to control cable
C : To avoid leakage
D : To avoid short circuit

207 : What is the name of fault if line is break in power cable?
A : Open circuit
B : Short circuit
C : Earth fault
D : Earth leakage

Wireman – Semester 4 Module 7 – Control panel wiring and maintenance

208 : Which is the minimum value of insulation resistance between phase to earth terminal in electrical installation?
A : 10 MΩ
B : 100 MΩ
C : 10 kΩ
D : 1 MΩ

209 : Which type of fault light will glow dim and motor runs slowly in a electrical installation?
A : Open circuit
B : Earth leakage
C : High value series resistance fault
D : Short circuit

210 : What is the function of Residual Current Circuit Breaker in electrical Installation?
A : Protect from short circuit
B : Protect from over current
C : Protect from open circuit
D : Protect from earth leakage

211 : Which helps the maintenance electrician to trouble shoot a fault in control panel in absence of operation manual?
A : Trouble shooting flow chart
B : Maintenance schedule
C : Machine register
D : Machine maintenance card

Wireman – Semester 4 Module 8 – Estimation and costing of wiring

212 : Which is the full form of NE code?
A : National Energy Code
B : National Engineering Code
C : National Electricity Code
D : National employment Code

213 : Which is the name for calculating the cost of material and labour of electrical installation?
A : Estimation
B : Layout
C : Schedule
D : Specifications of materials

214 : How many power socket outlet are permitted in a power sub circuit as per IE rule?
A : 1
B : 2
C : 3
D : 4

215 : Which term defines that the ratio between minimum actual load to Installed load?
A : Depreciation Factor
B : Demand Factor
C : Diminishing Factor
D : Diversity Factor

216 : Which is the number of light and fan points recommended in a sub circuit as per IE rule in domestic wiring?
A : 12
B : 10
C : 8
D : 6

217 : How much percentage of total cost isadded to estimate as contingencies?
A : 20%
B : 15%
C : 10%
D : 5%

218 : Which is the recommended power for a lighting sub circuit as per IE rule in domestic wiring?
A : 800W
B : 1200W
C : 2000W
D : 3000W

219 : What is the height of horizontal run of cables as per IE code recommendation?
A : 2.5m
B : 3m
C : 2m
D : 1.5m

220 : Which is the location of distribution board in a domestic wiring installation?
A : Near to main door
B : Under stair case
C : Near to load center
D : In Portico

221 : Which is the size of G.I earth conductor to be connected in third terminal of wall sockets as per IE rule?
A : NO.16 SWG
B : NO.14 SWG
C : NO.10 SWG
D : NO.8 SWG

222 : Which connections the flexible cords is to be used?
A : Recessed conduit wiring
B : Pendant lamp
C : Air conditioner
D : Electric Iron

223 : Which is the minimum clearance must be kept between ceiling and plane of blade of a ceiling fan?
A : 150mm
B : 200mm
C : 275mm
D : 300mm

224 : Which type of light fitting should be used for outdoor lighting?
A : Water proof lighting
B : Direct lighting
C : Spot light
D : Indirect lighting

225 : Which type of switch is used,if the appliance rating is higher than 16A?
A : 16A single pole switch
B : 16A Two way switch
C : 6A SP switch
D : 32A Double pole switch

Wireman – Semester 4 Module 8 – Estimation and costing of wiring

226 : Which pump is used to lift water from a deep bore well?
A : Reciprocating pump
B : Rotary pumps
C : Centrifugal pump
D : Submersible pump

227 : Which is the cross sectional area of neutral bus bar compared to phase busbar above 200 A capacity?
A : Half of phase busbar
B : 2 times of phase busbar
C : 1.5 times of phase busbar
D : Same as phase busbar

228 : Which factor determines the size of wire used for industrial wiring?
A : Type of wiring distance
B : Distance from source
C : Line voltage
D : Load current

229 : Which type of the bus bar system is illustrated?

A : Horizontal bus system
B : Vertical bus system
C : 8 bar system
D : Bus bar trunking system

230 : Which is the distance of saddles to be fixed from the centre of bends (or) couplings in metal circuit wiring?
A : 60cm
B : 50cm
C : 30cm
D : 15cm

231 : Which is the alpha numberic rotation for apparatus AC 3 phase system?
A : A,B,C,N
B : X,Y,Z,N
C : U,V,W,N
D : A,B,C,N

232 : What is the name of distribution system used in industries?

A : Bus bar suspended from roof
B : Bus bar supported from ground
C : Vertical mounted bus bar
D : Bus duct system

233 : Which is the minimum size of copper conductor used for power wiring in commercial wiring as per IE rule?
A : 1 mm2
B : 1.5 mm2
C : 2.0 mm2
D : 2.5 mm2

234 : Which is the name of position marked as x?

A : Height
B : Horizondal run
C : Vertical run
D : Down drop

235 : Which is the minimum size of PVC conduit used in government installations prescribed by CPWD?
A : 20mm
B : 16mm
C : 19mm
D : 32mm

236 : What is the first step taken during preparation of estimating the material required for any type of wiring installation?
A : Take the lay out
B : Purchase accessories for testing
C : Prepare instruments for testing
D : Purchase cables testing

237 : Which load is to be connected from stand by generator set in the event of failure of mains?
A : Garden lighting
B : Portico lighting
C : Fire lift and water pumps
D : Playing area lighting

238 : Which is the recommended height of energy meter to be installed from floor level in commercial wiring as per IE rule?
A : Not less than 1m
B : Not less than 1.5m
C : Not less than 2m
D : Not less than 2.5m

239 : Which is to be considered before the selection of conductor, protective devices and switch gear in commercial wiring?
A : Diversity factor
B : Type of wiring
C : Place of wiring
D : Climatic conditions

240 : Where the location of main switch in a domestic wiring installation?
A : Near to load centre
B : Near to termination of service line
C : Out side wall of building
D : Near main door

241 : Which cable is selected for service connection and outdoor applications?
A : PVC insulated PVC sheathed
B : PILC cable
C : TRS sheathed
D : Lead alloy sheathed

242 : Which type of wiring system used in multistoried building?
A : Tree system
B : Bus bar system
C : Ring main system
D : Distribution board system

243 : Which is the number of earth leads shall be provided along with vertical runs of rising mains?
A : 1
B : 2
C : 3
D : 4

244 : What is the name of distribution system?

A : Ring main system
B : Distribution board system
C : Rising main system
D : Bus champer system

245 : Which is the permissible power load in a sub circuit as per IE rule?
A : 800 Watts
B : 1200 Watts
C : 2400 Watts
D : 3000 Watts

246 : What is the formula to calculate the voltage drop in 3 phase circuits ? (If I=line current R=Resistance of one core)
A : √3 IR
B : I²R
C : IR
D : 3 IR

247 : Which is the permissible voltage drop at the point of consumer on high and extra high voltage as per IE rule?
A : 3%
B : 5%
C : 8.50%
D : 12.50%

248 : Which is the height of distribution boards to be fixed from floor level as per IE rule?
A : Not more than 1m
B : Not less than 1.5m
C : Not less than 2m
D : Not less than 2.5m

249 : Which type of distribution is used in workshop wiring?
A : Raising mains
B : Bus chamber
C : Tree system
D : Ring main system

250 : Which is the thickness of metal conduit pipe for conduit size up to 32 mm as per IE Rule?
A : 20 SWG
B : 19 SWG
C : 32 SWG
D : 16 SWG

251 : Which helps both wireman and consumer to select the material according to commercial practice, cost and requirement?
A : Drawing
B : Specification of material
C : Layout
D : Estimation

252 : Which is the reason for using bus bar system in workshop for power distribution?
A : Occupy less space
B : Give neat appearance
C : Easy addition and alterations
D : Withstand over load

253 : Which method of wiring consumes less quantity of wire/cable?
A : Joint box method
B : Loop in back method
C : Loop in using two plate ceiling rose andswitch
D : Loop in method using three plate ceiling rose

254 : Which accessory is represented by the BIS symbol?

A : Combined switch and socket outlet 16A
B : Interlocking switch and socket 6A
C : Interlocking switch and socket 16A
D : Socket outlet 16A

255 : Which wire is to be connected through switch as per IE rule?
A : Phase line
B : Neutral
C : Earth
D : Ground